BrE help?

Dec 02, 2009 10:08

Question for my British English-speaking friends ( Read more... )

language, teaching

Leave a comment

Comments 8

jadesfire December 2 2009, 16:10:51 UTC
Nope, it's "Sixteen hundred" or "the seventeenth century". I can't imagine anyone teaching them "One Thousand Six Hundred" unless they were reading something archaic (eg "In the year of our Lord One Thousand, Six Hundred and Twelve", that kind of thing)

It's them not you!

Reply

rustydog December 2 2009, 16:17:18 UTC
Whew, thanks!

unless they were reading something archaic (eg "In the year of our Lord One Thousand, Six Hundred and Twelve"

I thought of that, and it makes me wonder if that's what their teachers might have been going on? Sometimes foreign language teachers don't have much experience with the L2 themselves, so what they teach is very "bookish" and may not have a good relationship with real modern contexts.

Reply

jadesfire December 2 2009, 16:43:02 UTC
That's interesting, and is the only context I can think of where that would be the correct way of saying it.

What's L2? Second language? I like the abbreviation!

Reply

rustydog December 2 2009, 16:45:30 UTC
Oh yes, sorry, L1 = the first or native language and L2 = the target language. It's a very useful abbreviation!

Reply


aeron_lanart December 2 2009, 22:09:24 UTC
Definitely sixteen hundred; if it was something like 1642 it'd be sixteen forty-two.

Now if you're talking sub 1000 AD years like 578 AD for example, then you might say either five seventy-eight, five seven eight AD or five hundred and seventy eight - I've heard all three being used and not in 'bookish' circles either.

Reply

rustydog December 3 2009, 01:47:12 UTC
Thank you! It will help me to be able to give them an answer from an authentic source about what's spoken in British English today. :)

then you might say either five seventy-eight, five seven eight AD or five hundred and seventy eight - I've heard all three being used and not in 'bookish' circles either.

This might even be similar to the question of what we're going to do with the 2000s when we get past "9" - I could have sworn we'd say "twenty-ten," and that's what I'll be saying, darnit, but most of the broadcasters I've heard have been saying "two thousand ten." Which just seems a waste of syllables.

Reply


gorimek December 3 2009, 01:32:46 UTC
The English dialect spoken and taught in (for example) India can sometimes retain the English spoken hundreds of years ago. That's not technically 'wrong', just a different dialect.

Then there are places like Japan, where they've just invented their own version of English that they teach each other, for reasons that are unclear to me.

Reply

rustydog December 3 2009, 01:43:00 UTC
That's not technically 'wrong', just a different dialect.

I agree, and World Englishes are a hot topic among language teachers so it's something I considered. Actually, as I understand it, quite a few of the differences between American English and British English are older forms and usages that Americans retained from the time the two split, and they changed later in Britain. But none of the students in my class right now have any long-spoken, traditional version of English in their countries. I think it's more likely your second example, where they're just teaching each other ... something, and reinforcing it with more non-native (English) teaching. Even that might be legitimate within Japan/Korea/wherever, if it develops long enough, but I'm charged with helping my students survive in an American academic environment, so I'll at least make that part clear to them when I can. :)

Reply


Leave a comment

Up