"The Fremen were supreme in that quality the ancients called spannungsbogen -- which is the self-imposed delay between desire for a thing and the act of reaching out to grasp that thing."
-- from The Wisdom of Muad'Dib by the Princess Irulan
Take a random sample of a few hundred 4-year-olds. Put them in a room with a marshmallow on a plate and some
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I think one always has to be careful about averages, although they are interesting. Variance and distribution are important, too. For example, if 10% of the impulsive folk (as measured by the marshmallow effect) contribute to the entrepreneurial creativeness, invention, technology, and higher-end labor productivity that spurs 30% of economic growth, then the vector for the average and the 10% are not isomorphic, the marginal return on each is different, the average skews the truth. A similar effect is surely observed for intelligence, maybe something like this for example (with an arbitrary definition for "genius"): marshmallow-impulsive: 10% geniuses, 90% not geniuses -- non-marshmallow-impulsive: 1% geniuses, 99% not geniuses.
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"Marshmallow" is just a dummy for "some food item the kid really likes". If taste was a significant factor in the Mischel & Shoda studies then this would tend to decrease the correlations they found, meaning controlling for taste would have made the test an even better predictor than it already is.
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"Marshmallow" is just a dummy for "some food item the kid really likes". If taste was a significant factor in the Mischel & Shoda studies then this would tend to decrease the correlations they found, meaning controlling for taste would have made the test an even better predictor than it already is.
are you sure about that? think about that for a minute. I've been looking at this for a while, and without looking at the studies themselves, it would seem to me that you're making an error about how correlation works. since the correlation is only between two variables, i'm not sure how this statement could possibly be true. as you described the experiment "taste" (or what i was suggesting, preference) is a confound, there is no way to assert what impact it would have on the correlation one way or another. Feel free to correct me if i'm wrong.
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If anything my personal experiences with intelligence tests and those of people I know personally have been ambiguous. I was practically dragged kicking and screaming to where I am now by all the reading I did on the subject last year.
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