Why is insomni@ masculine in Spanish?

Apr 12, 2011 21:31

I'm really curious about this recent finding of mine ( Read more... )

words, language history, grammar, spanish, gender, romance

Leave a comment

Comments 19

dcseain April 13 2011, 05:23:10 UTC
I'll go out on a limb and suggest Basque influence. That often explains oddities in Iberian languages, though i've no meaningful clue if that's the case here.

Reply

muckefuck April 13 2011, 12:42:56 UTC
Actually, it seldom if ever does. For a thorough demolition of this myth, see chapter 6 of Larry Trask's History of Basque.

Reply

dontbeakakke April 16 2011, 02:01:44 UTC
Basque has no gender.

Reply


gorkabear April 13 2011, 05:41:52 UTC
Insomnio comes from latin "insomnium" which is a gender neutral word from the second declination. Neutrum became masculine. However, since the plural of "insomnium" would be "insomna" the explanation might be here.

Source: http://buscon.rae.es/draeI/SrvltConsulta?TIPO_BUS=3&LEMA=insomnio

Reply

archaicos April 13 2011, 05:55:57 UTC
That (DRAE) explains how we got it in Spanish. Really, the surprise is why it's different from the two close linguistic and geographical neighbors, Italian and Portuguese? Maybe even three, taking into account French. Looks like some freak accident, but it's probably not.

On a second thought, there are many Latin words that have different genders in different descendants of (Vulgar) Latin... I think it might be a part of a bigger thing. And I wonder if it's anyhow related to the articles which every language seems to have invented or reinvented on its own.

Again, I know nearly nothing about the language history, so, please forgive me for any stupid or bold statements there might be.

Reply

gorkabear April 13 2011, 07:53:32 UTC
I'm no expert either but this gender didn't suprise me! As far as I know (I have no ethimological dictionary here) this could have been a word that entered our languages with humanism as a "cultism".

BTW, I made a mistake, the plural of somnum would be somni

Reply

voleala April 13 2011, 16:59:23 UTC
There were two words in Latin: somnium (pl. somnia) and somnus (pl. somni).

Reply


tisoi April 13 2011, 05:48:11 UTC
Interesting, DRAE is saying that insomnio is from Latin "insomnium"...

You know, I do notice that Spanish "sueño" is "somni" in Catalan. Insomni but not in insueño.

Reply

archaicos April 13 2011, 09:58:44 UTC
There're a number of interesting things that you can't miss.

Latin -> Spanish:
qualĭtas -> cualidad, calidad
causa -> causa, cosa

And just some peculiar irregularities like this in Spanish:
decir -> dicho but bendecir -> bendito

Reply


sollersuk April 13 2011, 06:35:32 UTC
"Insomnia", "sleeplessness", is found used by Terence and Suetonius as a feminine noun, but "insomnium" (neuter noun, plural "insomnia") meaning "bad dream" also exists, in conjunction with the word "somnium". Hispania dropped out of the main Roman sphere of influence at about the same time as Britannia did, so possibly the neuter word, which later became masculine, predominated there.

Reply

voleala April 13 2011, 17:05:12 UTC
Bad dream? This is strange. Could you tell me where did you see this meaning?

Reply

sollersuk April 13 2011, 20:37:10 UTC
Chambers Murray Latin-English Dictionary, Sir William Smith and Sir John Lockwood (originally 1933): refers to Virgil and Tibullus

Reply

voleala April 13 2011, 21:00:18 UTC
Thank you.

Reply


muckefuck April 13 2011, 12:48:01 UTC
In Catalan, the form could've been influenced by the existing "cultism" somni "dream". This explanation doesn't work for Spanish, of course.

Reply


Leave a comment

Up