[Multilingual Monday] Without Infinitives A

Dec 06, 2010 23:50

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muckefuck December 7 2010, 16:19:52 UTC
I was going to ask that if nahi isn't an infinitive, what is it, since it's clearly a non-finite form. But I found the answer from Larry Trask (RIP), namely that this form is referred to as the "(perfective) participle".

The Celtic languages also famously lack an infinitive. What generally takes its place is a "verb-noun", which is nominal in origin but has some very verby characteristics, particularly in Irish dialects which are losing the genitive. E.g. Connemara tá mé ag léamh an leabhar "I am reading a book", with leabhar "book" in the unmarked casus rectus. (Cf. Munster E.g., táim ag léaghadh an leabhair, literally, "am at reading [of] the book/the book's reading".)

In modern Welsh, the genitive has been lost entirely, e.g. rw i'n darllen y llyfr. But even in these Celtic varieties, the "nouniness" of the verb-noun is still apparent when the object is pronominal, e.g. Connemara Irish tá mé dhá léamh. Dhá is a contraction of do a "to her [poss.]", so literally we have "am I to-her reading". Cf. (Southern) Welsh rw i'n ei ( ... )

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oddcellist December 9 2010, 15:10:56 UTC
I do Ancient Greek, but something that always interests me is that the modern language has lost infinitives in the complementary functions you mention, preferring the particle na + historically subjunctive forms (which is itself an evolution from Ancient hina + subjunctive to express purpose (and probably some other things, but it's been a while since I've read a lot).

Because literature stuck around, though, the loss wasn't complete in the literary language, so you get historically infinitive forms being used as verbal nouns. I'm still working my way through a book on medieval and modern Greek, which I'm hoping will answer why the third person singular of eimi 'to be' has changed from esti, a clitic form, to einai, historically the infinitive. Further posts as developments warrant.

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