I was slightly surprised to find us singing Come ye faithful raise the anthem as the offertory hymn this evening because I associated it with cheerful occasion, not quite Eastertide but nearly (partly I think because of Come ye faithful raise the strain. However, I had forgotten until we got to the relevant verse (4?) that is was definitely
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If I understood the reason for not saying the A-word in Lent, I might be able to think of it as something other than spiritual OCD. Any ideas?
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There is a school of thought that in fact, it is not so much that the word is omitted in Lent but that it never spread there from Eastertide in the first place.
In many ways it is similar to the omission of the Gloria (although there are more occasions which bring that back) in terms of creating a more sombre atmosphere during Lent. The vicar back in Aber did not get why we should omit the Gloria `why shouldn't we praise God in Lent/Advent?' he asked. But we do continue to praise God, but just not in those particular ways. It is part of the way in which the timescale of liturgy is the year not the day. As the preacher has been telling us, liturgical time is non-homogenised and corporate and such things as avoiding the A-word in Lent is part of that.
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If the trend continues people who care may just have to remain mute at the offending words - as some (don't ask!) already appear to do for the filioque clause.
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but only when it suits them, remember. consistency on the matter would be a blessing, to be honest.
-m-
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So I'd say this hymn is exempt, at least on those grounds.
As for the filioque, I see no reason for consistency. Sometimes I think it is more important to leave it out, since it shouldn't be there, and on other occasions I think it is more important to leave it in, since leaving it out would make it seem as if it said something that mattered. So sometimes I do and sometimes I don't.
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One obvious problem with this sort of inconsistency is that it can confuse the faithful, especially when it is displayed by their pastors and masters. The doctrine of the Double Procession may be well nigh indeterminable (there are good arguments both for and against it, rather better than for most of the other stuff in the creed), but that's not to say that it's immaterial. It's a matter of faith (not of mere custom, like which hand one receives communion in). And isn't there a further inconsistency in saying that something "shouldn't be there" and yet that that something doesn't say anything that matters?
So if anonymous really believes that the Western doctrine is wrong, shouldn't zie conscientiously strive for its excision from the liturgy forthwith - or at least consistently decline to recite that clause and explain zir position to those who might otherwise be perplexed?
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