(Untitled)

Jan 23, 2006 22:38

I don't understand how the BQ can book 50 seats of 308 (almost 17% of the seats) while only picking up 3% of the popular vote. Aren't the ridings supposed to be set so that they all contain the same population numbers appx.?

That's Stupid.

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annaanastasia January 24 2006, 04:00:28 UTC
sadly....Quebec seems to fall under that whole "we are a distinct society and need to be represented" thing that they trot out all the time. I have no clue as to how the number of seats was determined but yes....the ridings are essentially divided by population throughout the rest of the country.

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thehypo January 24 2006, 04:04:47 UTC
But Quebec is like... the second most populous province isn't it? How does only 3% of the country vote for them yet they take that much of quebec? Wiki claims that Quebec contains about 24% of the population of Canada. There ar 75 Quebec seats. So they had almost two thirds of the seats in Quebec with only 12% of the popular vote. I don't understand how that's possible.

That was earlier, now they have about 8-9% whch is still only 1/3rd of the popular vote for 50/75 seats.

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annaanastasia January 24 2006, 04:14:16 UTC
well even though they have 24% of the population they have it spread out over 75 seats (which is disproportionate when compared to the remainder of the seats in the country). Since the population is spread out over a greater number of ridings it takes less votes to elect a Bloq seat then say a seat in a Toronto riding. Hence the discrepency in popular vote.

Does that make sense? LOL I'm tired.

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hanrow January 24 2006, 04:19:46 UTC
They're supposed to be roughly the same, but, after all the gerrymandering, they're usually not even close. Rural ridings tend to have a lot less population than urban ones.

JGH

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