…You know, I am less and less convinced by the "Shakespeare must have meant 'Innogen' and not 'Imogen' in Cymbeline" argument every time I read anything written by Simon Forman. Today is the day in 1611 on which he recorded seeing the play, so someone on Twitter linked to his account. I guess we now have to start calling Banquo "Bancko," Macduff "
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"Innogen" has to be transcription error for Imogen.
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Forman is also inaccurate in his account of Macbeth - saying that the Macbeths literally cannot remove the blood from their hands, for example - so why is he totally trustworthy on the subject of "Innogen"? Why should I believe that the same transcription error occurred every time someone typeset the name of this character, based solely on external evidence (and not, say, rhymes that consistently fail to work unless you change the name, or ( ... )
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(The RSC edition is especially ridiculous, since its whole selling point is adhering to Folio!)
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