This is purely for study purposes (mine) and entertainment (yours and mine). I am using fictional characters in novels as mock case studies, to acquaint myself with the DSM-IV (the American manual of mental illnesses.) I cannot actually diagnose any real person.
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On a different subject, can I ask why personality disorders and mental retardation are on the same axis?
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It makes no sense, honestly, but the theory is that they're more lifelong and less easily subject to change than the Axis I disorders. Which makes no sense as Axis I disorders include lifelong neurological conditions like autism and dyslexia. (Why those are even in the DSM is something that also doesn't make a ton of sense.)
The other explanation is that both are more subtle and it ensures that they won't get overlooked - which also makes no sense. You can put ten Axis I disorders on Axis I and not worry that one will be forgotten.
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Just so you know, you're awesome.
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So maybe he has had previous traumatic events that you don't know about. Ruling it out seems oddly avoidant.
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I lived through DSM-II, the latest of the APA's denial and delusion about traumatic events eras (1968-1980), with a husband who came back from Vietnam with PTSD, so I probably sound crabby sometimes. If I did, I apologize.
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I don't know if you've seen these: http://rachelmanija.livejournal.com/541123.html
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