Jan 14, 2010 00:53
If a straight woman writes f/f is she appropriating lesbian experiences?
Yes, I have just come from metafandom.
ETA: I am a maid of constant intellectual conflict, so no I'm not fishing for a certain answer here and you can be honest.
i'll tag this later
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I know that this is a touchy topic, but I find it very difficult to always distinguish between a fantasy or a story-telling kink which would count as appropriation and normal interest in the human condition which includes very different experiences. Most of time, I avoid taking part in those discussions, because on one side, I am a person that takes other peoples opinions and experiences in consideration, but on the other side, I feel that I have the right to read and to write everything what I want that makes an interesting, entertaining or engaging story. I feel the same about other cultures as well: I'm pretty sure I made many mistakes in my writing of non-European cultures and I find the discussions very helpful to learn more about stereotypes and to become aware of them, but I don't want to be disallowed to think about those settings at all, just because of the cadavres in the basement of European literature. ;)
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But tell me, did this person remember to point out that straight, bisexual and lesbian women writing m/m would also be appropriation )I'm assuming men writing f/f was also appropriation), or do they live in that magical world where logic and common sense do not apply, and anything that's women writing about men is magically subversive and feminist?
ETA: Oh, I think I misunderstood. Was this a question based on a claim actually made in the posts(and I have seen such claims explained at length to explain why m/m slash is so wonderful and amazing and f/f just isn't as good) or spawned by discussion? (Either way, my answer would be "only if it applies all ways.")
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