I understand the basics of what moras are, and so on, but is there any evidence that speakers of languages that are more mora-oriented actually have their own judgements on what mora are outside of mindless phonological operations that happen due to syllable weight? To me it makes sense that someone could have judgements about whether a syllable
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However, if you just want to learn about morae cross-linguistically, Japanese would be an excellent comparative case.
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I'd expected there'd be something about Japanese that would come up, as I had studied it for 4 years and remember something about mora, but that was before I'd really ever gotten into linguistics, so that's a good tidbit. With it being represented in the writin system, does that mean then that something like the nasal (however it's represented) is equal to any other character, i.e., , or are there sets of sounds in the "syllibaries" that have more morae than others?
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The only points at which the system somewhat fails to adhere to "one symbol, one mora" are with the combinations like キャ, ショ, ティ, which though two characters in some sense are certainly single morae. Basically a way to make it neat is to call the ya-row small kana and the small vowels diacritics or some such. If you do so, all the others are moraic.
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Thanks for pointing that out! I didn't know that about English, what with those extra-heavy rimes.
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