For a person to form a predicative judgment is for him to come to believe a sentence to be true. For a Kantian transcendental ego to come to believe a sentence to be true is for it to relate representations (Vorstellungen) to one another: two radically distinct sorts of representations, concepts on the one hand and intuitions on the other. Kant
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I will try and gin up a crash course in Kant over the next few days! He did indeed believe he'd laid Hume's scepticism to rest.
(I imagine I explained* some Kantian stuff before -- I shall go back and have a look.)
*"explained"
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Jumping ahead of myself, Rorty says, a few pages later (p. 154), the first sentence being Kant's idea, not his:
[W]e are never conscious of unsynthesized intuitions, nor of concepts apart from their application to intuitions. The doctrine that we are not so conscious is precisely Kant's advance in the direction of taking knowledge to be of propositions rather than of objects - his step away from the attempts of Aristotle and Locke to model knowing on perceiving.Obv., Rorty doesn't think that Kant got all the way there. "Knowledge to be of propositions" just means that you can take your "knowledge" to be the sum total of the true propositions that you believe, which can be put in ( ... )
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What do you suppose this sentence means? Doesn't Kant think we do the relating unconsciously, since we don't have direct access to either the intuitions or the concepts independently of one another? Or am I wrong about that - we do have direct access to the intuitions and the concepts? Or is the "transcendental ego" different from the "we" of my second sentence? The fact that I haven't read this stuff in 34 years is perhaps a drawback.
But more crucially, how, according to Kant (or according to Rorty's take on Kant) does our relating a concept to an intuition result in our believing something to be true much less believing a sentence to be true?
Any thoughts on this?
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