A recent conversation sparked a controversial, if somewhat unusual idea. I was talking with a few people earlier today, post-GRE, and we started talking about sex-ed and abstinence-only education. I won't belabor how we got to this point of the conversation, but I thought I'd share a point that I eventually raised.
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Warning: Sexually Explicit...and kinda ridiculous )
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How is "quality" standardized when it comes to your theory?
Quality would generally be based off the intensity and physical satisfaction with the resulting orgasm. Where on the proverbial 'sexual richter scale' it would it fall.
What is the "norm" when it comes to determining which gender enjoys which kind of stimulation the most?According to what I know of the Kinsey research and similar findings, women are more disposed to having an orgasm/reaching climax through clitoral and g-spot stimulation then they are through genital intercourse. Conversely, men are more disposed to climax/orgasm through intercourse than they are through oral/manual stimulation ( ... )
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