Comments | fandom_grammar: Answer: Why is it spelled 'per se'?

supercheesegirl in fandom_grammar

Answer: Why is it spelled 'per se'?

Oct 13, 2009 09:38

Question: Why is it spelled 'per se'?

It's spelled that way because it's a phrase that comes from Latin. ( With examples from Harry Potter. )

author:supercheesegirl, !answer, language:word origins, errors:common errors

Comments 4

alethiaxx October 13 2009, 23:02:27 UTC

Interesting! Thanks for the post.

Never thought I'd see the day when Y!A got cited for anything remotely scholarly, but there ya go :)

Good article ext_283220 October 13 2010, 04:59:27 UTC

Was looking for info on italicizing per se. And you answered it!

Re: Good article supercheesegirl October 13 2010, 13:19:33 UTC

Glad to be of service!

Italicizing per se ext_3273366 August 20 2015, 21:25:38 UTC

I disagree on the point about italicizing per se. It might not be compulsory, but I think it's a good idea whenever a switch to a foreign pronunciation is required. Personally, I would pronounce per similar to "pear" and so I think the italics are warranted.