A few years ago, I went to a fairly poor
Academy of Social Sciences conference in Canberra on indigenous issues (there was much denunciation of "conservatives": naturally, none such were invited to speak for themselves). As a result, I am on the mailing list for its publication,
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(data showing income share of lowest 40% of households rose from 13% to 19% between the 1930s and the 1980s)
So the poor got a better deal between the Great Depression and the booms of the nineties, after the avowedly socialistic policies of the intervening seni-century.
... and then? The 1980s... Thatcher, Reagan, Hawke/Keating. Surely this is precisely the period when the substantial gains of the previous fifty years started being systematically reversed?
To use those statistics and infer a continuing trend seems somewhat like looking at Stock Market prices for the period 1900-1927, and doing the same.
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My point remains, however.
(damn lack of editing on comments...)
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Which is what I said. Though systematically is putting it far too high.
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Somehow the coining of a new term (to be pronounced as 'traitor', or even 'terrorist') is meant to somehow prove something.
For 'liberal' and 'neo-liberal', however, I think there is a valid, meaningful definition for each, and a necessary distinction. The Liberal Party, I think, are largely neo-libs in the sense you give.
Some other definitions of Neo-Liberal, on the other hand, concentrate on the economic over the social aspects. I note, however, that Erudito doesn't reference this definition - possibly because of the phrase "The term neoliberalism was coined by Conservative Republicans, ..."
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(Also, that is the first time I have read it suggested that conservative Republicans coined the term. I use Wikipedia a lot but I am aware of its limitations. There were a group of Democrats calling themselves neoliberals for a while, but that was following the American use of 'liberal' to mean, as I would put it, 'ideologically cross-dressing social democrat'.)
As for the alleged marriage of economic liberalism to social conservatism, see my direct response.
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There certainly has been a matching of liberal economics with social conservatism, but as practical politics not as developed intellectual tradition.
Moreover, such labelling completely fails to deal with all the left-of-centre governments who engaged in allegedly "neo-liberal" policies.
Which is the point: economic liberalism has been matched with both conservative and with social democratic policy approaches. So, one can't attack Hawke, Lange, etc for being "neoliberal' AND say "neoliberal" is about conservative social policy.
Many market liberals are quite unhappy with John Howard, for example, regarding him as rather timid in his tax and IR policy and far too fond of tax-and-spend.
And, more or less without exception, all the economic liberals I know and read regard "neoliberal" as a academic wank term. But, of course, as wicked "neoliberals" their views don't count, even about their own views.
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To claim that the term neoliberalism is some sort of leftist agitprop is pure fantasy and contrary to empirical and historical evidence.
The fact is that the term "liberal" has changed over the years.
In meant, in one instance a hundred and fifty to over two hundred years ago a radical individualism with a particular interest in a clear separation between church and state.
It developed in the twentieth century to mean a moderate approach, a middle-way between unbridled capitalism and hyper-regulated socialism.
The contemporary neo-liberal is a "return to the roots" of classical liberalism, even in a somewhat more radical and extreme point of view.
The term is both accurate and a matter of idenity politics having been coined by conservative republican. To deny it's existence is to exist in a parallel universe.
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Take it up with Wikipedia then. If you have counter evidence that the term was no coined by conservative republicans use it. Or live in a parallel universe where the events never occurred.
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Though I guess it makes a certain sort of sense, if the Wikipedia entry is correct. Both groups are trying to belittle the economic liberals, so they make a disparaging connection -- in conservative Republican circles liberal is not a hurrah word.
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http://www.natsem.canberra.edu.au/pubs/dps/dp34/dp34.pdf
http://www.natsem.canberra.edu.au/pubs/cp01/2001_008/cp2001_008.html
The distribution of income is roughly the same as it was a decade prior and the distribution of wealth is worse.
Wealth-wise, the top 1% of the population own 12 percent of household assets. The top ten percent of the population hold 44%. The top twenty percent hold 63%. The bottom fifty percent holds a mere 5%.
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Indeed, the failure of incomes to get more unequal is quite striking. Perhaps we are getting something out of all that welfare spending. (Though, come to think of it, said welfare probably does adversely affect asset distribution.)
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Which would suggest that the distribution of wealth would be similar to the distribution of life expetency and IQ. Which isn't the case.
Aggravated, of course, by govt. land policies which drive house values up by restricting land supply.
*blink*
Land supply is restricted by *nature*, not by governments who have shown themselves quite willing to sell land to developers.
Also, it's not house values that have increased in (indeed, the real cost has fallen in the last fifty years). It's the value of land and the lack of government taxation through resource rentals thereof.
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Land supply for housing is restricted by zoning. And yes, govts are happy to sell to developers -- after they have extracted their monopoly rents. And yes, the value of housing land is what is increased, that's what I said.
Consider these figures on housing affordability. Does it really make sense, given, as you say, Australia has lots of land, that housing is less affordable in Sydney than New York? Or that Melbourne is almost poorly affordable as New York?
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