There isn't a general rule, no, what with the unstandardized spelling and all, except that initial V tends not to be printed as U. I suppose too that it has something to do with what the compositors have available.
It seems to me I read somewhere awhile ago that because Spenser deliberately emulated Chaucer's spelling, modern editors leave it be (whereas they typically have no qualms about modernizing/standardizing, say, Sidney's spelling).
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my verse your vertues rare shall eternize
It always confuses me when the U and V aren't used consistently. Is there a general rule they followed, or were things just not so formalised then?
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