Periodically I stand up and wave around a book called Dear Friends that features 19th century photographs of men in very affectionate poses.
zekiel has pointed out a site for the book that shows some of those photos. As I said in
zekiel's journal I think this observation is very interesting: This installation of highly suggestive and ambiguous photographs
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nineteenth-century American men and women were in many ways encouraged to establish intense, even passionate, bonds with members of their own sex... these ties could be romantic in ways that we would identify as sexual, but that Victorians, in their state of pre-Freudian innocence, would not.
Emotionally passionate, physically affectionate, but not crossing the line into sexual? Or yes, sexual, but not considered a big deal? What do they mean by "innocence"?
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that would be viewed as platonic, whether they were or not
Does this imply that only a marriage (or an encounter with a prostitute) would be viewed as sexual?
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I've just reread what you wrote and realised that you did define what you thought they meant by "innocence" - it just didn't make a lot of sense to me because I don't know much about Freud!
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1) they didn't consider things we see as sexual sexually back then. Like you mention below, they could perhaps get sexual release from a doctor (and my goodness, what an interesting form of therapy) but not see that as necessarily "sexual."
2) in the other sense, and the one I think they origianlly meant (though I'm really not sure), it is very possible that people could have emotionally intimate and physically affectionate relationships with people of the same sex, and even sleep in the same bed with them, and not do anything sexual. I'm not sure about *this* time period too much -- my specialty is 18/19th century British Literature -- but it wouldn't have been uncommon for two unrelated women to live together. People were more "innocent" in that they wouldn't have thought that they were doing anything. Like you said, it's hard for you to imagine people having a relationship like that and not do sexual things in these "less innocent" ( ... )
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they didn't consider things we see as sexual sexually back then
it is very possible that people could have emotionally intimate and physically affectionate relationships with people of the same sex, and even sleep in the same bed with them, and not do anything sexual
These are almost diametrically opposed, right? Either they *were* in fact engaging in what we consider sexual behaviour, but viewing it differently (and that makes sense to me!), or they *weren't*. (Of course, some were probably doing one thing and others the other!) As I've just said to true_enough below, the only way I can comfortably understand the second explanation is if one or both of them was 100% heterosexual. Otherwise, what reasons would they have had for differentiating between touching someone in one place but not another? It almost seems as if the more innocent someone was, the less likely they'd be to draw any kind of line ( ... )
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I'm afraid I'm only muddy-ing the waters. For a clearer answer please see finnigan_geist's response. We both hate Freud.
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If they're not getting at "not sexual", what *do* they mean? Or do they mean yes, sexual, by our definitions, but not something that was in any way remarked upon or made an issue of, either by the participants or anyone else?
Just last week I read part of a friend's book about the history of the vibrator, which talked about how women during that time period were routinely manually brought to orgasm by their doctors as treatment for "hysteria". (The book had a drawing of a doctor anally penetrating a man with a vibrator, too - not sure what they were treating him for!) So, they had passionate platonic friendships but went to a doctor for sexual release?
I feel all at sea, without the context to interpret anything correctly.
I've re-read that story by Biblio you recommended quite a few times.
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I get the impression that women of that time were taught to think of sex as only a means to procreate. Any orgasm was probably accidental and possibly startling. If I squint I can almost see how a doctor (who, at least, knows more about the mechanics of the body) would think an orgasm was the tail end of hysteria.
I can't believe how hard it is to get my head around sex and innocence. finnigan_geist's example of women holding hands and the adult seeing it one way and a child another, I think, speaks of intent as much as interpretation. Are the women holding hands for affections sake or are the doing it as a prelude to something more? And does wanting something more mean you're not innocent? And now we're back where we started. :)
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Well, that's the whole point. You have no idea what their intent is, but the adult would be more apt to at least suspect that the gesture is a prelude to something more. The child probably wouldn't consider it.
And does wanting something more mean you're not innocent?In this case, I do think that's the way they mean the word. I almost made the error of using it myself in calling hand-holding "innocent." I think one problem here is to automatically assume that the oposite of innocent is guilty in this conext, which I don't think is how they mean it. Wanting something more wouldn't mean you're "guilty," but it *would* mean that you're not holding a person's hand just for the sake of holding their hand; that you have other motives (and those motives aren't necessarily evil or wrong! But ( ... )
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I especially like that definition because even if someone wants more if they are devoid of cunning and artifice then I guess they would be innocent.
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