In Philosophy 101, we are told about the different logical fallacies - i.e., the slippery slope fallacy, the appeal to authority, the ad hominem argument, etc. All (or most) are listed at http://www.fallacyfiles.orgRead more... )
I mean, it isn't like there is a way to empirically determine what is a fallacy and what is valid logic. Your compulsive need to confirm all of your beliefs empirically is proof that you have been brainwashed by "Western culture." The true philosopher has faith in the dictates of reason.
But seriously, though, asking for empirical proof of the validity of an argument is a category mistake, just like it would be to ask for empirical proof that 2+2=4.
What one can do is show (logically!) that a fallacy is bad reasoning, via a reductio ad absurdum, for instance. No real philosopher would just accept that something was a fallacy because someone told him or her so. I recommend you start with the ad hominem fallacy, since it's pretty easy to show why that one's no good.
Your compulsive need to confirm all of your beliefs empirically is proof that you have been brainwashed by "Western culture." The true philosopher has faith in the dictates of reason.
Was that a joke? You said "but seriously" afterwards. I didn't get it! :-P
But couldn't there possibly be forms of reasoning that are fallacious some of time and not other parts of the time? I'll have to cogitate on that.
Not "sometimes" as in Thursdays, but "sometimes" as in some situations. I'm sure there are examples of logical fallacies being used to get conclusions that are empirically correct, but the real reason for the conclusion being correct does not involve the fallacy.
Of course you can use logical fallacies to get conclusions that are empirically correct. I don't see how this relates to the question of logical inferences being valid in some situations and not in others.
(A logical inference is not always valid if its conclusiion is true. There are more conditions. However, if we begin with true statements, and perform valid logical inferences, our conclusions will always be true, not just sometimes.)
Your compulsive need to confirm all of your beliefs empirically is proof that you have been brainwashed by "Western culture." The true philosopher has faith in the dictates of reason.
But seriously, though, asking for empirical proof of the validity of an argument is a category mistake, just like it would be to ask for empirical proof that 2+2=4.
What one can do is show (logically!) that a fallacy is bad reasoning, via a reductio ad absurdum, for instance. No real philosopher would just accept that something was a fallacy because someone told him or her so. I recommend you start with the ad hominem fallacy, since it's pretty easy to show why that one's no good.
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Was that a joke? You said "but seriously" afterwards. I didn't get it! :-P
But couldn't there possibly be forms of reasoning that are fallacious some of time and not other parts of the time? I'll have to cogitate on that.
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That makes no sense. If they aren't valid 'sometimes' (on Thursdays???), then we don't really have any reason for saying that they're ever valid.
Yes. Please go "cogitate" on that for a while.
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I'm sure there are examples of logical fallacies being used to get conclusions that are empirically correct, but the real reason for the conclusion being correct does not involve the fallacy.
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(A logical inference is not always valid if its conclusiion is true. There are more conditions. However, if we begin with true statements, and perform valid logical inferences, our conclusions will always be true, not just sometimes.)
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