(no subject)
Does anyone know anything about medieval conceptions of rape?
I had a half-awake idea that concerned a quodlibetal discussion on the use of love potions, and the differences or similarities between using a love potion (which infringes upon free will) and praying for God to soften someone's heart (as he hardens Pharaoh's heart in the Old Testament).
I have always seen condemnations against love potions phrased in the context of their status as witchcraft, but never in the context of impinging upon free will, and I know that the Middle Ages had different ideas on these things, so I was wondering if anyone had any insight into whether:
1. It is the efficacy or the sorcery that makes love potions bad
2. Whether a miracle which created love would be possible (i.e. does God grant miracles that impinge upon free will)
3. Whether either case would be considered rape in the sense that we refer to use of mood-altering substances to create desire rape
I had a half-awake idea that concerned a quodlibetal discussion on the use of love potions, and the differences or similarities between using a love potion (which infringes upon free will) and praying for God to soften someone's heart (as he hardens Pharaoh's heart in the Old Testament).
I have always seen condemnations against love potions phrased in the context of their status as witchcraft, but never in the context of impinging upon free will, and I know that the Middle Ages had different ideas on these things, so I was wondering if anyone had any insight into whether:
1. It is the efficacy or the sorcery that makes love potions bad
2. Whether a miracle which created love would be possible (i.e. does God grant miracles that impinge upon free will)
3. Whether either case would be considered rape in the sense that we refer to use of mood-altering substances to create desire rape