(no subject)
Why does everyone who knows anything about philosophy (including Stanford) insist that Nietzsche wasn't anti-Semitic? Yes, I know his sister/editor was a raging Jew-hater, but there's only so many ways you can untwist these passages, and none of 'em turn his views shiny or happy.
Admit it. He was a man of his times. Anti-Semitism in 1800s Germany was as normal and unremarkable as racism in America at the same time was (and still is, in some areas). Please kindly admit to his prejudice, admit that it colored his views, and get on with it. It doesn't ruin his philosophy, you just have to dig under the vituperation to find the same view which he happily applied to Christianity and Buddhism as well. (The main difference being, he railed against the Jews as a people, and then slung mud at Christianity and Buddhism as religious traditions.)
And finally, I'm unsure as to what he means by ressentiment. Is it "resentment"? Or is it that "revaluation of values" he goes on about? Or does class/power resentment lead into that revaluation? This is the idea which intrigues me.
Oh, and he gave a shout-out to Spinoza. This makes me happy.
Admit it. He was a man of his times. Anti-Semitism in 1800s Germany was as normal and unremarkable as racism in America at the same time was (and still is, in some areas). Please kindly admit to his prejudice, admit that it colored his views, and get on with it. It doesn't ruin his philosophy, you just have to dig under the vituperation to find the same view which he happily applied to Christianity and Buddhism as well. (The main difference being, he railed against the Jews as a people, and then slung mud at Christianity and Buddhism as religious traditions.)
And finally, I'm unsure as to what he means by ressentiment. Is it "resentment"? Or is it that "revaluation of values" he goes on about? Or does class/power resentment lead into that revaluation? This is the idea which intrigues me.
Oh, and he gave a shout-out to Spinoza. This makes me happy.