Mar 15, 2006 22:26
I have a bit of a poser for anyone who knows a bit about philosophy. Which, I think almost all of you do since we’re all here at King’s. Basically this is my spin on the foreknowledge conundrum, which basically put is: How is human action free if an omniscient God knows what that action will be? Divine foreknowledge has always posed a problem to human freedom. If God knows that Cuthbert will buy an iguana at a particular time, then for Cuthbert to not buy the iguana is to deny God’s infallible nature. Cuthbert’s freedom is restrained because he cannot choose contrary to God’s infallible foreknowledge. If God infallibly knows all actions beforehand, then that implies that God also infallibly knows what God’s actions will be. If God knows God’s own actions beforehand, then how can God be free in light of his own foreknowledge? If God cannot act in a free and unrestrained manner, then God is not God.
This question helps form one of the philosophical underpinnings of my atheism, so I’m looking for comments and refutations. Also this is a question I’ve been itching to ask in my Philosophy of Religion course, so the more unsolvable you can help me make it the happier I’ll be.
philosophy