Coin flipping

Sep 22, 2005 19:19

This analogy is perhaps easier to understand the concept that I am curious about: Using the coin flipping analogy suppose we're going to run a test of ten coin flips. Logically speaking you would expect that there would be about an even 5 heads and 5 tails turn out, right? Now suppose that by some strange chance your first 5 flips are all heads. You would have a 1 in 32 (2^5) chance of that happening, correct? Your chances of then getting another heads on your 6th flip becomes less likely because the odds of getting 6 heads in a row is even more scarce (1 in 64, right?). From this couldn't we say that if someone has been luckly playing cards the more lucky they get the less likely it'll be that they are lucky in the future?
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