A Question
So, if the California Supreme Court rules that Proposition 8 is valid yet upholds the legality of existing same sex marriages, does that mean that some gay couples are 'more equal' than others? How is it reconciled that certain arbitrary same sex couples* enjoy rights and privileges denied to the rest?
*note - I mean arbitrary only in that the distinguishing characteristic of the couples in question simply had more fortuitous timing.
*note - I mean arbitrary only in that the distinguishing characteristic of the couples in question simply had more fortuitous timing.