Nov 04, 2006 06:56
Ok so, after some reading of other people's Journals as of late, and keeping with the times of Jesus talk. I pose a question.
According to the bible and some testimonies from curious neighbors, Jesus died for our sins...But, that happened, long before I was born...so, does that mean he A) died only for the sins of those who were born before he was crucified. Or 2) died for all future sins as well?
I ask this because, if he died for reason A, then shouldn't he be fair and do it every few years or so, so that EVERYONE gets a chance to be saved? And if it's reasoning 2, then does that mean, I have nothing to fear since I've been saved already?
**shrugs** Just putting it out there.
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