(no subject)
So I was watching the news this morning, and there was a short segment about prop 8 in California. The jist of the segment was that there's the possibility it will be overturned despite the ruling in the November election. This thoroughly confuses me. What was the point on voting on it if those votes approving prop 8 will end up counting for nothing? The segment also mentioned if it does get overturned in California, then it may get overturned in Arizona as well (where I live). This is very frustrating (as I am sure those against prop 8 are very frustrated as well).
Like I said before, the founding fathers did not put a clause in the constitution that everyone can say and express their opinions as long as it goes with what a certain group of people say. That's not how a democratic society works.
If we can't come to some sort of agreement, then I fear we will just end up tearing each other apart.
Perhaps I just missed something in the broadcast. Wouldn't it need to come to a general vote again? If so, how many times can something be voted on before it can no longer be put on the ballot?
Like I said before, the founding fathers did not put a clause in the constitution that everyone can say and express their opinions as long as it goes with what a certain group of people say. That's not how a democratic society works.
If we can't come to some sort of agreement, then I fear we will just end up tearing each other apart.
Perhaps I just missed something in the broadcast. Wouldn't it need to come to a general vote again? If so, how many times can something be voted on before it can no longer be put on the ballot?