(no subject)
I tried doing a google search on this site to see if anything came up, and nothing did, so apologies if this has been brought up before.
Anyway, I got into a discussion with someone who said that she approved of Shyamalan's pronunciation changes to the movie, because the changes were less westernized. And it got me thinking - I recall a few people saying that the pronunciation differences, while certainly less westernized, actually did NOT make sense because the changes were all over the place, e.g. he was using East or Southeast Asian phonetics for the Water Tribe. (<-- That's just a hypothetical example, I'm not sure if that's what actually happened.) Can anyone shed more light on this? My google fu skills are sadly lacking right now.
Anyway, I got into a discussion with someone who said that she approved of Shyamalan's pronunciation changes to the movie, because the changes were less westernized. And it got me thinking - I recall a few people saying that the pronunciation differences, while certainly less westernized, actually did NOT make sense because the changes were all over the place, e.g. he was using East or Southeast Asian phonetics for the Water Tribe. (<-- That's just a hypothetical example, I'm not sure if that's what actually happened.) Can anyone shed more light on this? My google fu skills are sadly lacking right now.