Archaic verb usage and you.

Aug 11, 2009 21:19

I got asked a question today about archaic verb usage and had to look up the answer. Since it piqued my interest, I am posting the answer here because.... well I'm a dork and feel like sharing.

The question was about the usage of the verb "doth".  What word, exactly, does this replace in a sentence?  As it turns out, "doth" is an archaic usage of the third person singular present indicative form of the verb "to do".

What does this mean in English?

Third person singular is the verb form used with the pronouns he/she/it. So, in Shakespeare's Hamlet, we get "the Lady doth protest too much methinks" ('the Lady' indicating 'she').

Present form of the verb meaning it is happening now as opposed to the past form (did) or the future tense (will do), so actually it is the precursor to our modern "does".

Indicative form of the verb means that it is stating a fact (as opposed to subjunctive form or imperative form which state possibility/conjecture and commands respectively). The indicative form is used to state what is happening, what will happen, or what has happened.

.....this is really a long-winded way of saying you use "doth" in place of "does". It is not used in place of "do".

I am certain all of our lives are made better by reading this.
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