My brother sent me five lines of Greek today and asked me to translate them for him. Apparently, two of his coworkers have been going around about the translation of these verses, and since I know Classical Greek, he thought he'd get my opinion. The text he sent is scanned below the cut.
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he said it's from the book of John, apparently Chapter 1, verses 1-5 )
I cannot even begin to think about the _pros_ issue; I think Jerome's Latin translation uses _in verbum_ which is absurd (and belies his ignorance), but became the standard until Erasmus came along and woke up a number of Xians.
The Greek word _to phws_ in the last verse is a clever little double-entendre (reminding us again that John's original thought-world was definitely Hellenic, as opposed to Aramaic). Theonides uses the translation "man," which does not convey what the author intends--indeed, the paucity of English does not allow us to translate the passage as John intended. '_to phws_' is clearly (pun intended) also to mean "light" here (hence English "photograph," phosphorus," et al.)--hence the contrast between the _skotia_ and the obvious 'light emerging from the darkness' Xian religious crapola.
Just my two sesterces...
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Thank you for your input. I will consider this section further.
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