more proof that homosexuality is evil.

Apr 29, 2009 23:55


I always find some really interesting stuff while doing research for papers.
1 Corinthians 6:9-10 (King James Version) [vague]

9Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, 10Nor thieves, nor covetous ( Read more... )

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Comments 22

bandach April 30 2009, 04:11:21 UTC
That's really interesting. I know that the bible gets edited a shitload with every new version, but had never seen any specific examples.

(that stupid bigot girl posted the NIV version which is what caused everyone to rage on her)

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tangywolf April 30 2009, 04:29:30 UTC
That's the first example I've found where the meaning was completely changed. Of course, I don't usually make a point of checking for such things. I just happened to read the NIV quote somewhere and thought it seemed a little fishy.

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comradek April 30 2009, 04:25:46 UTC
I once read something that said humanity should be eliminated. Since it was written, it must be true.

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tangywolf April 30 2009, 04:28:25 UTC
I'm down with eliminating humanity.

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bandach April 30 2009, 05:02:17 UTC
LITERAL WORD OF GOD (except he fucked up a bit the first few times, it's fixed now)

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tangywolf April 30 2009, 05:29:00 UTC
Hahahaha yes.

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dannydude April 30 2009, 06:44:16 UTC
Actually being religious, I'm gonna have to disagree here. You can't claim that the KJV is the "original" translation. You're implying that they took the passage from the KJV and embellished it to add the homophobic language for the NIV version, when really they're both just different translations of the same source material. Non-comparable.

I agree that the passage is rather silly, but you're trying to be all "LOL look at these stupid Christians getting more afraid of us with every version" when that's not what's going on.

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tangywolf April 30 2009, 16:52:46 UTC
I realize the KJV is not the original version, as it was obviously not first written in English. However, I was under the (perhaps false) impression that the NIV was a modernized KJV with simpler English.

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dannydude April 30 2009, 19:17:41 UTC
From what I can tell based on a few Google searches, it was a complete re-translation from the original texts, not a modernized KJV.

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bandach May 1 2009, 02:24:41 UTC
But don't you think there was a bit of motivation in choosing to interpret the original texts in that way?

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octan April 30 2009, 20:18:22 UTC
I remember when Rev. Tony Campolo came to our school to speak on the subject. He said all serious Greek scholars today agree that it's impossible to really know what the original word meant because, so far, it has never been seen in any other written work.

Given that, I can only conclude the original passage was condemning "fnords."

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tangywolf April 30 2009, 20:44:14 UTC
Well who wouldn't condemn fnords? It doesn't even need to be written.

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