(no subject)

May 18, 2005 03:21

Warning.... Not for the squeemish.
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Alright... you still here...?

ok.

Now... Female Orgasms. Whats the point?

Men have orgasms, because through ejaculating, they are able to impregnate a woman, thus men orgasm for the purpose of reproduction. Female orgasms have no such function. The effect is purely for pleasure. But why did women get the ability at all? Pleasure isnt something evolution exactly makes room for, it could be stated that it is to encourage intercourse, but thats a bit far fetched. Now consider this... a genderless egg is given the "blueprints" to what it needs just in case it becomes male or female. So it is certain things by default. Such as nipples. Women have them to transport the milk from the mammary gland to the awaiting child (one would assume). Men have no use for them, ecept in the mutual stimulus both genders receive.... so the egg is give these blueprints, and it gives you these default "parts". So women in general have the ability to orgasm, JUST in case once it was fertilized, it became a male.

In short: Women wouldn't be able to orgasm, if Men didn't need it to keep the race alive.

oh and this leads me to believe that if the orgasm is a common ground in terms of origin... It is VERY likely they feel the same for both genders once achieved.
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