I can't imagine! But do you know when half-rhyme began to be recognized as a technique in English poetry, rather than as an unintended consequence of language change? And did the latter inspire the former?
I'm also thinking of the way in which people used to think Chaucer a less regular poet than he actually was, because they were unaware of ME pronunciation.
I'm not sure when it becomes accepted form although I agree with you that people didn't always understand Chaucer's rhyming patterns and even less someone like Langland, writing in alliterative northern ME and let's not even go near Henryson or Dunbar!
Statements about how words were pronounced historically often seem to be based on what the word was rhymed with in poetry of the period. It seems to me that this research assumption begs several obvious questions.
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I'm also thinking of the way in which people used to think Chaucer a less regular poet than he actually was, because they were unaware of ME pronunciation.
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Nine
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The bard was, after all, a west midlander!
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