Christians, the Bible, Homosexuality, etc.
I wish I had read this earlier; I wouldn't have made a mistake. I told someone recently that as I recalled, one word meant a particular thing, and while what I said was true (that is what I recalled), what I recalled was false.
Here. Generally, I think this is a pretty decent treatment of the subject.
Important Term : arsenokoitai (arsenokoitai)
This Greek noun is formed from the joining together of the Greek adjectival prefix for male (arseno-) and the Greek word for beds (koitai). Literally then it would mean, “male beds.” It is found in 1 Timothy 1:10 and 1 Corinthians 6:9. This is the first appearance of the word in preserved Greek literature and outside of these two verses this word does not appear at all in the Bible.
Which exposes my error. I had thought that Arseno- was synonymous with "same" ("homo" in the greek), when, in fact, it does not mean that.
Another quote from the paper -
“The objection to this argument by some Christians is to raise up Mark 10:7-8 where Jesus states that “For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.” The argument is then made that this is the only form scriptural marriage can take. The issue addressed in this passage, however, is divorce. Jesus is responding to a hard-hearted test of his authority. Extending his response to a blanket denial of homosexual marriage goes well beyond the text. Moreover, it is uttered by a single Christ who did indeed leave his mother and father to engage in his Incarnate mission. So long as we are dealing with a single Christ who left father and mother for a different reason, we must be open to other possible options, especially options that fulfill the ends of Christian marriage traditionally understood.
Which is another way of saying that the traditional Church's argument against homosexual marriage is an argument from silence, and thus logically invalid.
The entire text there is interesting, although I don't necessarily agree with everything he says. (which is not to say I disagree, either, but more that I'm still gathering information and deliberately not forming an opinion, although I do have some feelings about the whole matter - which shall deliberately remain private and unrevealed, and which will no doubt change when I do form an opinion).
How can I fail to hold an opinion?
Simple. I am not an expert in Greek. Greek experts abound on BOTH SIDES of this issue. BOTH SIDES claim correctness. One, or the other, or both, are simply wrong, because it is not possible that both can be completely correct without a contradiction.
Here. Generally, I think this is a pretty decent treatment of the subject.
Important Term : arsenokoitai (arsenokoitai)
This Greek noun is formed from the joining together of the Greek adjectival prefix for male (arseno-) and the Greek word for beds (koitai). Literally then it would mean, “male beds.” It is found in 1 Timothy 1:10 and 1 Corinthians 6:9. This is the first appearance of the word in preserved Greek literature and outside of these two verses this word does not appear at all in the Bible.
Which exposes my error. I had thought that Arseno- was synonymous with "same" ("homo" in the greek), when, in fact, it does not mean that.
Another quote from the paper -
“The objection to this argument by some Christians is to raise up Mark 10:7-8 where Jesus states that “For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh.” The argument is then made that this is the only form scriptural marriage can take. The issue addressed in this passage, however, is divorce. Jesus is responding to a hard-hearted test of his authority. Extending his response to a blanket denial of homosexual marriage goes well beyond the text. Moreover, it is uttered by a single Christ who did indeed leave his mother and father to engage in his Incarnate mission. So long as we are dealing with a single Christ who left father and mother for a different reason, we must be open to other possible options, especially options that fulfill the ends of Christian marriage traditionally understood.
Which is another way of saying that the traditional Church's argument against homosexual marriage is an argument from silence, and thus logically invalid.
The entire text there is interesting, although I don't necessarily agree with everything he says. (which is not to say I disagree, either, but more that I'm still gathering information and deliberately not forming an opinion, although I do have some feelings about the whole matter - which shall deliberately remain private and unrevealed, and which will no doubt change when I do form an opinion).
How can I fail to hold an opinion?
Simple. I am not an expert in Greek. Greek experts abound on BOTH SIDES of this issue. BOTH SIDES claim correctness. One, or the other, or both, are simply wrong, because it is not possible that both can be completely correct without a contradiction.