I responded to
belladonna_tb's September 13th journal entry about Jo's statement about the one question no one has ever asked her but wishes someone had and that was "Why did Dumbledore have James' invisibility cloak at the time of James' death, given that Dumbledore could make himself invisible without a cloak".
These are just MY random thoughts on this. I don't expect anyone to agree with me, but I'd love to hear what your theories or thoughts are. :o)
James gave it to Dumbledore for safe keeping, it means he was still alive. But why wouldn't he not use it to protect himself and his family (unless Voldemort can see through invisibility cloaks??? Can't remember *must re-read the books again!*). If James wanted to keep Voldemort from getting hold of it, there's something obviously very special about it. Which leads me to think that if it turns out that Harry is a descendant of Godric Gryffindor, then did the cloak belong to GG? And if so, could the cloak be the item of Gryffindor that Tom wanted to add to his collection?.
I also wonder if the cloak is one of Voldemort's Horcruxes and if not, is it James' (although I don't remember if James killed anyone to make it) *again....must re-read the books*
So if James made it a Horcrux, could he possibly come back to help Harry in the final battle? And since this is a pretty far-fetched guess, why not go even further.... If the cloak belonged to Godric Gryffindor, could HE have made it a Horcrux? Wouldn't that make ol' Voldy shit himself if he saw Godric Gryffindor helping Harry. *hey, I can dream, can't I?*