While whining that waging war on terrorism is anti-Democratic the New York Times has also made sure to promote radical theocracies as "democracies". This double standard on democracy should come as no surprise to anyone who realizes that the New York Times is trying to reposition itself from a city/national paper into an international news source
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The religious party in Iran holds all the powers as political parties in other countries. At what point does religiosity act as a bar to the democratic process?
It's an interesting question.
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I can understand the need in America, it is incredibly diverse:
Protestant 52%, Roman Catholic 24%, Mormon 2%, Jewish 1%, Muslim 1%, other 10%, none 10% (2002 est.) (source: CIA factbook)
But Iran is not:
Shi'a Muslim 89%, Sunni Muslim 9%, Zoroastrian, Jewish, Christian, and Baha'i 2% (source: CIA factbook)
Is religion, being a personal and political belief regardless of rationality, be allowed to play any role in the creation of the state?
If religion is allowed to have any role in politics, why shouldn't we expect Iran to be theocratic in nature? Should our problem with Iran be concerned only with the institutional role that religion plays, and not the political?
I'm curious because somewhere legitimacy comes into play. If a population is religious and we limit that, how are we not being oppressive? And isn't oppression kinda the opposite of democracy?
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Accountability seems to be a completely different issue. India and Mexico are rife with corruption. Monolithic parties are only now beginning to budge after years of corruption. In a democracy, accountability occurs at the ballot box. The accountability that occured in Iran seemed to be one of anti-Western sentiment. We can't be happy about that, but that doesn't mean it's illegitimate or anti-democratic. It's just anti-Western.
Iran's population can certainly take issue with a regime. But at the ballot, even requiring approval from the clerics, there was a substantial difference between the two candidates. So the fundamentalist won, does that mean the system broke?
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Did America only become a democracy in 1973 when primaries became the standard?
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As long as anyone can run for office, and anyone can vote for that/those candidates then you have a democracy. There are other forms of democracy to be sure, including our own which started out as a slave owning society where only white males/landed gentry could vote.
I think everyone agrees now that that form of democracy is substandard.
Equality under the law....
Primaries are nice, but only the Big Two have them. Everyone else still uses a nominating convention/ruling cabal meeting to pick candidates.
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Having a constitution or other overriding set of laws that provides for some separation of churches and state is a good thing, in my opinion.
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refer above, we are talking about minority protection for only 2 percent of the population.
Why shouldn't a democratic state be allowed to curtail what it deems immoral behavior? America does it all the time. Pot smoking, homosexual behavior, illegal immigration, polygamy.
I mean, America has more Mormons than Iran has all non-Muslims combined, and Mormons are not afforded the religious freedom to marry multiple partners.
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Those in Oklahoma that criminalize all sodomy regardless of gender are still a-ok.
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