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obnoxiousorange

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Jul 07, 2005 23:35

When someone says "I really like tacos," someone will often respond with "me too." But I'm wondering why, grammatically, it isn't "I too."?

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homunculi July 7 2005, 21:16:05 UTC

Well, getting all technical, if someone asks "Is Devon anywhere to be found," you should hop out of your seat and yell "That's I!"

lurking post rainebm1185 July 13 2005, 18:23:07 UTC

actually, it'd be "That's me."

random stranger hopping in. sorry.

Re: lurking post homunculi July 13 2005, 23:11:31 UTC

My turn to apologize. Sorry, but you're completely wrong. The nominative form of any noun follows any form of "to be." It's plain old, good Latin grammar, and the foundation of our own.

That's I = That is I.

"Is" being a form of "to be," the nominative form of the first person singular pronoun is called to use. It may sound ugly but vulgar usage has corrupted all sorts of formal grammar.

Here's a link if you don't believe me.
http://www.longview.k12.wa.us/mmhs/wyatt/homework/grammar/teach10.html

Re: lurking post obnoxiousorange July 14 2005, 00:56:52 UTC

It seems you may have messed with the wrong Latin student. ::grins::

Hop in anytime!

Re: lurking post rainebm1185 July 14 2005, 03:06:00 UTC

ah-ha... unfair advantage, i see. ::shrug:: all my schooling of direct and indirect objections seem to have failed me. i knew my English teacher was wrong way more often than she claimed to be. either that or i just didn't pay attention as well as i should have.

Re: lurking post obnoxiousorange July 14 2005, 09:32:24 UTC

Hmm, don't feel too badly about it. I think I could probably say that about every class I've ever taken. :)

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