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nuqotw

(Untitled)

Oct 10, 2006 22:01

Here I am, blogging again. I'm definitely avoiding responsible things.

In that vein, here is my vocalization and translation of Genesis 1:1 and the very first Rashi in the Torah. I have a translation of most of Rashi on the first pasuq, but LJ ate much of the post and I don't feel like retyping much.
( Rashi )

Comments 4

anonymous October 12 2006, 02:13:41 UTC

Possible solution (and I'm really pulling this out of thin air):

By its very definition, the mitzvah of Bris Milah applies exclusively to males. In contrast, the mitzvah of Rosh Hodesh is applicable to all genders within Am Yisrael. Thus, it is the first mitzvah given to the complete Am.

No clue if Mefarshim back this up, and it also doesn't do much for the "doing EWGTYEIYWISTTSDPATBOTNP" paradox. Can anyone out there with the texts (our seforim are either unaccessibly stored, waiting patiently for bookshelves, or still in The Husband's(tm) old apartment) substantiate or debunk?

-- MF(S)W

nuqotw October 12 2006, 23:00:41 UTC

It's most certainly a question of a mitzvah being given to `Am Yisro`êl as `Am Yisroêl. My question is -- why do we need the `Am, since we definitely get a mitzvoh prior to achieving status as nation?

One could argue that later on, we receive the mitzvoh of circumcision in Tazria` (3rd pasuq in the parsha) and therefore according to Rabbi Isaac, we don't need to include the section where it's given simply to Abraham.

anonymous December 4 2006, 10:20:40 UTC

Rosh chodesh is even worse. It doesn't really "apply" to anyone at all! (with the exception of the court which declares the months, and the priest offering an extra sacrifice). Also, you can make a case that mothers have a role in circumcising their sons (Tzipora for example).

I'd suggest that there's a qualitative difference between "individual" mitzvot (even if performed by more than one person), and "communal" mitzvot - which only came into play once there was a Jewish people in Egypt. The question at hand is why the TORAH starts with Breishit. The Torah is a communal-focused document, and if it happens to mention mitzvot that were given on an individual level, that is purely incidental. So it WOULD make sense to start the Torah with the first communal mitzvah (Rosh Hodesh), and there DOES need to be a special reason to start it earlier. Hope that's coherent.

nuqotw December 5 2006, 06:48:50 UTC

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