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Dec 14, 2006 11:56

1 = 0.999 recurring

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schivnorr December 14 2006, 14:09:25 UTC
Yes. Exactly.

Let x = 0.999 recurring.
Then, 10*x = 9.999 recurring.

10*x - x = 9*x = 9.000 recurring
9*x = 9 implies x = 1.

Don'tcha just love nonunique n-ary representation?

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nicolyrezk December 14 2006, 14:10:49 UTC
I do, actually. I used to be a maths geek.

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schivnorr December 14 2006, 15:25:26 UTC
High-5! _O/\o_

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nicolyrezk December 14 2006, 15:28:43 UTC
To give you an idea of how much of a maths geek I once was, I passed GCSE Maths (Which is at the level of your High School Diploma/GED) when I was 13. o_o;

Maaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaaths

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schivnorr December 14 2006, 15:32:28 UTC
Nice. :) I probably woulda done the same thing if we hadn't kept moving around (after being put in advanced math for 3rd grade and then moving halfway through the year and having to go back to regular math, I got -really- bored for the next 2 years, and then lost all will to give a fuck about the American K-12 educational system).

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nicolyrezk December 14 2006, 15:33:57 UTC
I studied on my own and just paid for the examinations.

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schivnorr December 14 2006, 15:37:39 UTC
That's how I got in the advanced class. Then, when the new school didn't have such a system, I had no motivation to continue my self study. Meh.

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nicolyrezk December 14 2006, 15:39:16 UTC
I wish I hadn't stopped. Screwed myself over education-wise. But I am trying, now, to fix it. Never too late, after all!

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psaakyrn December 14 2006, 14:56:56 UTC
Not precisely true.

x = 0.999 recurring does not directly mean that 10*x = 9.999 recurring. I would ask, where's the 0 at the end of the recurring sequence? How can you just ignore it and assume that the 0 is actually a 9?

The layman's proof would involve fractions: 1/9 = 0.111 recurring, 2/9 = 0.222 recurring, and etc up to 9/9 = 0.999 recurring.

The mathematician's proof would involve calculations involving infinity, and infinite geometric series.

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nicolyrezk December 14 2006, 15:01:28 UTC
There IS no 0 at the end of the recurring sequence. That's why it's recurring.

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psaakyrn December 14 2006, 15:05:20 UTC
Which is precisely the point. Without sufficient proof, you can't say that 0.999 recurring * 10 = 9.999 recurring, unless you can reason why there isn't a 0 at the end.

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nicolyrezk December 14 2006, 15:08:48 UTC
You can rationalise it within the confines of recurrence. It's a product of a recurring number, therefor it must ALSO be recurring.

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psaakyrn December 14 2006, 15:17:11 UTC
Or you can rationalise it within the confines of multiplication of a value by it's base. 99 X 10 = 990. 9.9 * 10 = 99.0. 0.99 * 10 = 9.90.

But mathematics doesn't care for rationalisation, only logical proofs. The first step is to prove that for -1 < x < 1, x * infinity = 0. From there, you can treat 0.999 recurring as an infinite geometric series where a = 0.9 and r = 0.1. (infinite geometric series calculations require that for -1 < x < 1, x * infinity = 0)

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schivnorr December 14 2006, 15:25:06 UTC
Or, you can treat 0.999 recurring as (in Maple notation):

sum( 9/10^k, k=1..infinity );

This, as you pointed out, is an infinite geometric series. All you need to do is multiply this series by 10 and you get

sum( 9/10^(k-1), k=1..infinity);

which shows that there is no terminal 0 in the base-10 representation (this series is, basically, the base-10 representation itself.)

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psaakyrn December 14 2006, 15:32:01 UTC
That is true, assuming that infinity - 1 is still infinity.

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schivnorr December 14 2006, 15:34:58 UTC
If you assume that infinity-1 < infinity, then you are using a different set of axioms than I.

I believe that for the idea of infinity to be consistent within most axiomatic mathematical systems, infinity-1 must be defined to be infinity, infinity+1 must be defined to be infinity, and infintiy - infinity must be undefined.

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