calculating infinity.
after becoming obcessed with reading everyone else's live journal, i've finally fallen into the hole where I am going to update mine...almost regularly. so now i guess it'll be Alycia and I updating this beast; however, mine will just talk about math.
well after stating that. I learned something funny and blantfully obvious about the area of a circle. After taking the area of a circle formula for granted for the past 5 or 6 years, I finally sat down and thought about why it is so. Anyways to start off you must assume the circumference of a circle is equal to (Pi)d or 2(pi)r . After assuming so, look at a circle and divide it pizza style and look at the slices which resemble cones. Then take these "cones" if you will and lay them out in a formation to that will somewhat resemble a parallelogram. (so the cones kinda go point to top of other cone that is roundish). Anyways the part of the parallelogram that is slanted, which would be the radius of the circle would just be represented obviously by the "r" notation. Then since the length of the parallelogram is full of a lot of roundish tops. They are in fact half the circumference of the circle so if you take the circumference formula and multiply it by 1/2 you will recieve
(1/2)(pi)d = (pi)r
Then because the area formula for a parallelogram is length times width, just multiply both parts the radius times half the circumference, or (pi)r, and you'll be amazed that the result is obviously (pi)r^2. its so simple yet it took me so long to make that connection. horray for math nerds like myself that pollute the outside world with knowledge that only probably Shawn will appreciate from this post, but because I believe I already told him this prior to the post, it'll be a sad day.
PS- When I become president of any computer manufacturing corporation, there is going to be a Pi button on the keyboard that is the greek symbol for pi, which is the number 80 in greek for all of you who care, because this whole (pi) representing pi isn't cutting it. computer bastards.
well after stating that. I learned something funny and blantfully obvious about the area of a circle. After taking the area of a circle formula for granted for the past 5 or 6 years, I finally sat down and thought about why it is so. Anyways to start off you must assume the circumference of a circle is equal to (Pi)d or 2(pi)r . After assuming so, look at a circle and divide it pizza style and look at the slices which resemble cones. Then take these "cones" if you will and lay them out in a formation to that will somewhat resemble a parallelogram. (so the cones kinda go point to top of other cone that is roundish). Anyways the part of the parallelogram that is slanted, which would be the radius of the circle would just be represented obviously by the "r" notation. Then since the length of the parallelogram is full of a lot of roundish tops. They are in fact half the circumference of the circle so if you take the circumference formula and multiply it by 1/2 you will recieve
(1/2)(pi)d = (pi)r
Then because the area formula for a parallelogram is length times width, just multiply both parts the radius times half the circumference, or (pi)r, and you'll be amazed that the result is obviously (pi)r^2. its so simple yet it took me so long to make that connection. horray for math nerds like myself that pollute the outside world with knowledge that only probably Shawn will appreciate from this post, but because I believe I already told him this prior to the post, it'll be a sad day.
PS- When I become president of any computer manufacturing corporation, there is going to be a Pi button on the keyboard that is the greek symbol for pi, which is the number 80 in greek for all of you who care, because this whole (pi) representing pi isn't cutting it. computer bastards.