Function with 90 degree rotational symmetry about the origin?

Nov 12, 2012 10:20

I haven't done calculus level math in a long time, and this question has got me stumped ( Read more... )

function, calculus, graphing

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lackasexical November 12 2012, 16:48:36 UTC
Well, we did get to this point:



But it wouldn't be defined for 0, when we need it to be defined for all real numbers - so could we add a component for f(x) = 0 when x = 0?

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phlebas November 12 2012, 16:54:45 UTC
Assuming what you have works (you'll need to tweak a couple of inequalities, but something along those lines sounds good) you can just define f(0)=0, yes. Then prove that it satisfies the conditions and you're done.

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lackasexical November 12 2012, 17:27:22 UTC
Ah, you're right, there were some opportunities for missing points with those inequalities!

We've adjusted it like so:



Is that what you were referring to by "tweaking", or is it something more glaring we're overlooking?

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phlebas November 13 2012, 00:04:18 UTC
That was what I had in mind, yes - otherwise you end up with some values of x having two values defined for f(x) and some having none.

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notmrgarrison November 13 2012, 03:31:10 UTC
With that you have f(1) = 1 and f(-1) = 1.

When you rotate that 90 degrees you'll either get f(-1) = -1 or f(1) = -1.

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