Homosexuality in Britain (5th/6th century AC): Celts, Saxons, Picts and Scots

[lucre_noin]

I usually write a lot of arthurian stories but this time I'd love to document well myself about homosexuality and arthurian times.
The story is in 5th/6th century and the societies/cultures in the stories are: Celts, Picts, Scots, Saxons and Celts conquered by Romans. And, of course, one of the male characters is in love with another male character.

Comments

[sollersuk]

Gildas on penance may be relevant:

"A presbyter or a deacon committing natural fornication or sodomy who has perviously taken the monastic vow shall do penance for three years" (details follow).

"If any monk of lower rank (does this), he shall do penance for three years, but his allowance of bread shall be increased."

In other words, no differentiation is made as to the sinfulness of the two activities. At the time British monasticism differed quite a lot from continental forms, so probably reflects Romano-British attitudes.

Note that for this period the "Romano-" bit is still important. Gildas had had a good education and in the "De Excidio" quotes Virgil frequently; his Latin is much purer than that of his contemporaries across the Channel.

[lucre_noin]

What does he mean by Sodomy? I tought that the word meaning "homosexual acts" was used later.

Thank you very much : D I'm going to read Gildas <3

[sollersuk]

"Sodomita" in the original. It meant then the same as it did later. The first use in English that I can trace is around 1300, when Middle English hadn't been going for long, taken from the French "sodomie", which goes back significantly earlier and derives from the Latin word. The only other possible meaning is the literal "inhabitant of the town of Sodom" which clearly is not intended here.

If you can get hold of the Phillimore edition, it's got the translation and the original. But both are available online, though from different sources.

[laurose8]

Just to clarify, for my own muddle headedness. It didn't mean anal intercourse with females as well, then?

[sollersuk]

Not at the time, no. Although it's just possible as an alternative to "fornicatio naturalis". However, both the Old French and Middle English refer to homosexual activity.

[laurose8]

Thanks for explaining.