Bullshit people claim about languages, part #94731

Dec 02, 2010 07:01

But the fact of the matter is that gender is a linguistic term with a hard meaning.
So is "etymological fallacy"For example, all languages have gender pronouns, [...]
Er, no. Not even most, and even of those who do, a large number don't use sex as a basis for assigning gender.

(Inspired by some statements in idiotolects, pronouns, gender, possessives

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pne December 1 2010, 20:23:42 UTC
A favourite European counterexample is Finnish, which not only has no gendered pronouns (only an animate/inanimate distinction in the 3rd person) - but at least in colloquial language, tends to use the inanimate pronoun universally! (Effectively calling everything and everybody "it".)

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neat! locriansax December 1 2010, 20:49:53 UTC
Heh, that is interesting to know about Finnish (didn't know that!), as I *think* most English speakers use "they" in English when one is unsure of the gender of the person or wish to hide it to not reveal identity in conversation.

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Re: neat! ammesor0 December 1 2010, 21:16:34 UTC
Agreed. I feel like only the Bible consistently uses he/man to refer to everyone.

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Re: neat! marnanel December 1 2010, 21:29:34 UTC
I'd imagine that depended on the translation you were reading.

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Re: neat! biascut December 2 2010, 14:47:41 UTC
Crikey, I wish. It was used almost universally until about fifty years ago.

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