(no subject)
Ok this was brought up in a community I was in, so I am curious what other people think.
A woman gets pretty drunk and she and her husband have sex. She indicates that she feels like she did not give consent and could not give consent because she was severely intoxicated, and feels that her husband should have known this. She also indicated that because of this encounter she feels violated and that her husband should acknowledge his wrong doing and they need to (possibly) work on things. It is unclear, but implied that the encounter started as consensual, however it is not clear if any active withdrawal of consent occurred and was ignored by the husband (the implication is that it was not) or if she feels that her level of impairment meant that she was in no way able to give or withdraw consent and he should have just known that and stopped.
What do you think? I am in NO way saying that she should not feel the way she does, however I also am wondering how would her husband have known she didnt want to have sex. The marriage part makes it a little fuzzy I think. Does marriage give implied consent, given he may not have known she wanted to stop?
This is only for discussion, we are not wife bashing here. If she felt violated that is a valid feeling, I am just interested in the discussion piece.
A woman gets pretty drunk and she and her husband have sex. She indicates that she feels like she did not give consent and could not give consent because she was severely intoxicated, and feels that her husband should have known this. She also indicated that because of this encounter she feels violated and that her husband should acknowledge his wrong doing and they need to (possibly) work on things. It is unclear, but implied that the encounter started as consensual, however it is not clear if any active withdrawal of consent occurred and was ignored by the husband (the implication is that it was not) or if she feels that her level of impairment meant that she was in no way able to give or withdraw consent and he should have just known that and stopped.
What do you think? I am in NO way saying that she should not feel the way she does, however I also am wondering how would her husband have known she didnt want to have sex. The marriage part makes it a little fuzzy I think. Does marriage give implied consent, given he may not have known she wanted to stop?
This is only for discussion, we are not wife bashing here. If she felt violated that is a valid feeling, I am just interested in the discussion piece.