(no subject)
So, my theory that is a possibility to explaining the whole God/first cause problem is kinda long, sorry, but this is what I'm working off of--
(1) Something exists
(2) Everything that exists has a cause (determinism)
(3) An infinite regress of cause is impossible
(C) Therefore there exists a first cause (God)
I know there are many flaws with this argument--we've talked about them in class, etc. But my beef with it is, who says there is a first cause? That argument doesn't prove it's own conclusion, not taking into consideration the omnipotence and omniscience of God as the Catholic and Christian church know Him.
So, me trying to prove that God could have caused Himself, and therefore there is no First Cause:
ASSUMING we are talking about the Christian definition of God, which is omnipotent, omniscient, and omnibenevolent. For the sake of this argument, only omnipotence and later, omniscience, will matter.
(P1) If God is omnipotent, then He can manipulate time.
(P2) God is omnipotent.
(C1) Therefore God can manipulate time.
(P3) If God can manipulate time, then He is not constrained by the human cause --> effect experience of time.
(C2) God is not constrained by cause --> effect time.
(P4) If God is not constrained by cause --> effect time, then He can transcend time.
(C3) God can transcend time.
(P5) If He can transend time, the human concepts of "first" and "beginning" have no meaning to Him and His place in the mortal conception of time, because He is not limited to the cause --> effect timeline that humans are.
(C4) To Him, there would be no "first cause" or "beginning".
But how is this possible?
(P7) If there is no "first cause" for God because He can transcend time, then He is infinite (as far as cause --> effect time goes), and what humans may perceive as "first cause" (i.e., the Big Bang Theory) was not the first cause, even in its own chain of events.
POSSIBLE CONCLUSION/EXPLANATION OF FIRST CAUSE: God was created after the Big Bang (or the true equivalent), and through circular existence (not being constrained by cause --> effect time), omnipotence, and transcending time, He was still the cause of the Big Bang.
In other words, He created Himself because that's what had already happened in the human cause --> effect timeline. When He was created in the human timeline, He already existed because of his omnipotence and ability to transcend time.
So, for example, say He is created in 1980 (the date in the human cause --> effect timeline). He, being omniscient, knew He had to "go back" and create the world that created Him. Therefore, He both created the universe and the universe created Him -- He created Himself. Or at least a possibility of what might've happened.
...if you even believe in God anyway.
Make any sense? Probably not. But please, rip it apart, but use LOGIC and PHILOSOPHICAL terms and all that jazz, not "But the Bible says...!" I'm not looking for what the Bible says, I'm looking for a flaw in my argument and reasoning.
(Left unlocked 'cause I want more than just a few opinions, if possible.)
(1) Something exists
(2) Everything that exists has a cause (determinism)
(3) An infinite regress of cause is impossible
(C) Therefore there exists a first cause (God)
I know there are many flaws with this argument--we've talked about them in class, etc. But my beef with it is, who says there is a first cause? That argument doesn't prove it's own conclusion, not taking into consideration the omnipotence and omniscience of God as the Catholic and Christian church know Him.
So, me trying to prove that God could have caused Himself, and therefore there is no First Cause:
ASSUMING we are talking about the Christian definition of God, which is omnipotent, omniscient, and omnibenevolent. For the sake of this argument, only omnipotence and later, omniscience, will matter.
(P1) If God is omnipotent, then He can manipulate time.
(P2) God is omnipotent.
(C1) Therefore God can manipulate time.
(P3) If God can manipulate time, then He is not constrained by the human cause --> effect experience of time.
(C2) God is not constrained by cause --> effect time.
(P4) If God is not constrained by cause --> effect time, then He can transcend time.
(C3) God can transcend time.
(P5) If He can transend time, the human concepts of "first" and "beginning" have no meaning to Him and His place in the mortal conception of time, because He is not limited to the cause --> effect timeline that humans are.
(C4) To Him, there would be no "first cause" or "beginning".
But how is this possible?
(P7) If there is no "first cause" for God because He can transcend time, then He is infinite (as far as cause --> effect time goes), and what humans may perceive as "first cause" (i.e., the Big Bang Theory) was not the first cause, even in its own chain of events.
POSSIBLE CONCLUSION/EXPLANATION OF FIRST CAUSE: God was created after the Big Bang (or the true equivalent), and through circular existence (not being constrained by cause --> effect time), omnipotence, and transcending time, He was still the cause of the Big Bang.
In other words, He created Himself because that's what had already happened in the human cause --> effect timeline. When He was created in the human timeline, He already existed because of his omnipotence and ability to transcend time.
So, for example, say He is created in 1980 (the date in the human cause --> effect timeline). He, being omniscient, knew He had to "go back" and create the world that created Him. Therefore, He both created the universe and the universe created Him -- He created Himself. Or at least a possibility of what might've happened.
...if you even believe in God anyway.
Make any sense? Probably not. But please, rip it apart, but use LOGIC and PHILOSOPHICAL terms and all that jazz, not "But the Bible says...!" I'm not looking for what the Bible says, I'm looking for a flaw in my argument and reasoning.
(Left unlocked 'cause I want more than just a few opinions, if possible.)