With Ask Amy featuring yet another version of "Wasn't there a Friends episode about this?" problem of dividing up a restaurant tab evenly among all in a party [this one involving a non-drinker at the table having a $20+ lower share of the meal than the drinkers], I simply have to comment.
Not ONE restaurant I've been to has the same price for every dish and always serves everyone exactly the same amount of food, even if one person might only want an appetizer or dessert. Otherwise, HOW did the practice of splitting the check evenly among all in the party ever come about?
Well, I mean, I know how. "The total bill is $X, and there are Y people, so the math is easier!" Yet what happened to, "I know my food cost $15, and my drink is $2, so I'll throw in a $20 to cover my share + tip"? Why was that not the obvious initial solution, especially where restaurants are now in the habit of itemizing every bill? It's always unfair to make someone who ordered a cheaper meal pay for someone who ordered something more expensive, just because the collective party is lazy. The only case I would see the "everyone pays the same amount" practice applied appropriately is if one party orders one pizza and the same drinks for everyone, and everyone eats [basically] the same amount of pizza, but this is a comparably small percentage of restaurant outings, and it amazes me to think that anyone could ever believe it should always apply.
"Jim just dropped by really fast for a soda while the rest of us finished up our meals. He should pay $15, 'cause that's an even split!" WHAT. XO "It saves trouble for the server to do only one check!" How 'bout the server gets one pile of money no matter who puts in what, or has to do something s/he's perfectly capable of doing anyway if there are fifteen charges to make because that's why you tip.
Gawdamn, lazy!
...now for your periodic unsolicited image spam: