A thing that's bugged me for a long time is the apparent arbitrariness with which we have to define inflation. The CPI, for instance, picks some ol' basket of goods, and measures how its price changes. Depending on how that representative basket of goods is chosen, you get a different answer. In particular, if the basket of goods has twice as many
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As the above commentor wrote, the trouble starts when you get products that can become obsolete. Cars are a good example.
Suppose I put a 2000 Honda Accord in my "basket". I quickly notice that the price of a 2000 Honda Accord decays at about 10% per year. I add some other models -- 2001 Honda Accord, 2002 Honda Accord -- and discover to my horror that every car on the market has the same yearly price decay! Does this mean inflation is at -10%?
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Also, is Σiμivi in Rn? That doesn't look like an average to me!
Which quantities in here are goods and which are prices?
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Why is Σiμivi being in Rn make it seem not like an average? It would be the mean if μi were constantly 1/m.
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Now it all makes sense.
(my initial confusion was that, while I'm perfectly okay with the average of a bunch of velocities being a velocity, my mind wants the "inflation rate" to be in R. I assume you're not talking about making inflatin rates vectors in Rn, but if you are, that is kindof interesting [and might require a bit more explanation of the economics involved])
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Good point.
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What does rotation even mean when rotating bundles of time-series of good prices? Or does it become some other sort of "rotation" when you pick a different norm?
Speaking of which, which norm are you using for distance?
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It probably came out of thinking through the impossibility theorem that you can't have something that is invariant under all linear transformations, and also duplication of samples: for consider first the endpoints of an equilateral triangle. Rotation-invariance (a special case of linear transformation obviously) that their "average" is in the ordinary geometric center of the triangle. But if I linearly squish the triangle so the two points on the base come together just below the top point, then that ordinary center is carried by that linear transformation to a height just 1/sqrt(3) above the base, which it shouldn't; the "average" of two points --- since we're supposed to be agnostic about the fact that there's a redundant point sitting on top of the bottom one --- should obviously be half-way between them.
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