Insight Anyone?
(posted on facebook as well)
I am in the process of memorizing Colossians chapter 1. And as I've been trying to memorize verse 24 I've found I don't quite understand it. In the NASB (which is what I'm memorizing in) it says:
"Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I do my share on behalf of His body (which is the church) in filling up that which is lacking in Christ's afflictions."
Okay, I understand the idea of rejoicing in sufferings in many respects. Things like because we identify with Christ to the degree that we are afflicted as Christ was and being honored by that. But here it's not saying anything like that, it seems to be saying suffering to make up for a lack in Christ's affliction which doesn't make sense to me! Christ's sacrifice was perfect. He lived a perfect life despite affliction and temptation and was a perfect sacrifice. Christ is not *lacking* in affliction (or anything else!). He SHOULDN'T be afflicted! I don't get it. Am I missing something?
I am in the process of memorizing Colossians chapter 1. And as I've been trying to memorize verse 24 I've found I don't quite understand it. In the NASB (which is what I'm memorizing in) it says:
"Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I do my share on behalf of His body (which is the church) in filling up that which is lacking in Christ's afflictions."
Okay, I understand the idea of rejoicing in sufferings in many respects. Things like because we identify with Christ to the degree that we are afflicted as Christ was and being honored by that. But here it's not saying anything like that, it seems to be saying suffering to make up for a lack in Christ's affliction which doesn't make sense to me! Christ's sacrifice was perfect. He lived a perfect life despite affliction and temptation and was a perfect sacrifice. Christ is not *lacking* in affliction (or anything else!). He SHOULDN'T be afflicted! I don't get it. Am I missing something?