Imagine a world where they didn't. Good behavior would always be requited with rewards, instantaneously, and bad behavior, conversely, would receive instant punishment. The universe would be like a giant Skinner box, with results constantly conditioning behavior towards the ideal and normative
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the atheist looks around at evil, and in his outrage cries out: "why?!? to what end?!?"-- but his worldview does not admit formal and final causes or the reality of universals.
i flatly refuse to be put on the defensive by anyone who thinks the "problem of evil" is primarily a question of theodicy. the fact is that anyone who reads about rwanda --theist or atheist-- has a "problem of evil" to think through. which of them will actually be able to do it?
the theist knows there is a Judge and Lawgiver beyond death; he has put forth a plausible, if not always immediately satisfying, solution to the greatest human problem. the atheist, whatever else he may have, has no solution whatsoever-- nor even sufficient recourse of the categories in which one might emerge.
atheist: "if your god ( ... )
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Do you then posit any type of universal moral causality? Are good deeds rewarded and bad deeds punished, just not consistently? Or do you only posit a mechanical or amoral causality?
How do you explain scriptural accounts where biblical figures are clearly rewarded based on a certain action?
Do you posit that the purpose of life is the development of virtue? This seems implicit in your argument, but I think it is a point to be made clear.
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Looking over your original posts and your subsequent answers, I do see that you argue more for a delay in reward/punishment rather than an inconsistent pattern of reward/punishment or no reward/punishment.
Would not a delay in the reward/punishment simply result in a more ineffective conditioning? Would not a delay simply prolong the process of a universal Skinner's box? Does your argument confuse ineffective conditioning with moral freedom? How would we tell the difference between ineffective conditioning and moral freedom?
Let me define what I meant by a universal moral causality. There exists an apparent physical causality which is best described in scientific and physical terms. However, many religions posit another layer of causality which, instead of operating in physical terms, operates in moral terms. I.e., that certain events occur because of the moral nature of an earlier event. It is such a system that we have been discussing in general terms.
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