I could probably find a simple answer to this somewhere on the internet...
...but let's pose it as a rhetorical question.
Or I guess it's not so rhetoric if there's a solid answer...
Anyway, we all know that AIDS/HIV came from monkeys. As in someone(s) had sex with a monkey and it somehow became a massive epidemic in Africa. So there's a big push to teach them about protection. So here's the question. Aside from preventing pregnancy, is there a medical purpose for two people, neither of whom have ever had any sexual contact that would expose them to disease, to use a prophylactic? Like, do STD's/STI's (do we really have to be politically correct with this subject?) naturally occur in the body, or did it all spread from some other origin? Ponder on that.
Or I guess it's not so rhetoric if there's a solid answer...
Anyway, we all know that AIDS/HIV came from monkeys. As in someone(s) had sex with a monkey and it somehow became a massive epidemic in Africa. So there's a big push to teach them about protection. So here's the question. Aside from preventing pregnancy, is there a medical purpose for two people, neither of whom have ever had any sexual contact that would expose them to disease, to use a prophylactic? Like, do STD's/STI's (do we really have to be politically correct with this subject?) naturally occur in the body, or did it all spread from some other origin? Ponder on that.