icon: "exuviate (a sparkly green dragonfly standing next to its just-shed previous skin)"Yesterday I went on a walk in nature with P and we talked a lot about their relationship with M. As usual I was revolted by the presence of sexist norms and unethical treatment of each other, M taking advantage of P when they can and P doing it because M did it
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A few months back I noticed that you were not using certain descriptive pronouns like zir or ze anymore and had switched to the plural they. I thought you were talking about more than one person until it became clearer in another post that you were indeed talking about one person.
It is okay to ask why the switch? I even went back and read posts from that time to see if you explained it but couldn't find anything. I wonder if I am the only one who's confused? Sometimes I actually can't tell if it's more than one person. It's your descriptive and not mine, so I'm sure you don't care if I can't tell but I was just wondering.
Thanks!
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I made the switch for several reasons. One is even though ze/zir does not refer to a gender and is thus a term for any person, it is taken as meaning "something other than he or she" and I have to acknowledge the common perception even though it's inaccurate. So I use they/them because that is actually taken as gender-neutral. There is also the fact that I am not the clearest enunciator, and people sometimes hear my "zir" as her and my "ze" as he. That doesn't work either! And lastly and most importantly, they/them is inclusive of people who are bigender or multigender and plurals (people who are multiple systems, multiple people living in the same body. FAQ). So, overall I switched to 'they' to communicate more accurately and to be more inclusive. I've been meaning to make a post about this so thanks for the question!
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