Feb 14, 2016 12:00
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Wouldn't that kind of naturally be its own control? I mean if one partner gets a low status job and the other gets a high status job on average they get an average status job.
I'm not sure why you think that statement would apply to lesbians and not to (say) gay men though who suffer a penalty compared with straight men. In lesbian couples tend to be more equal in the hours they work than het couples (so there's no evidence that lesbian couples split into "X stays home, Y has high powered job") and also that they tend to work longer hours than het couples.
The report is a meta study so it does not itself bring in controls but relies on the controls of the other studies -- you can read it here.
http://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/irel.12075/abstract
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I thought about this for about 5 seconds before posting, so I don't particularly expect I *did* get it right, but I don't quite understand your objection. Assume lesbians and gay men split chores equally, and for straight couples, men do less and women do more (on average). Then, men get the most high-paying jobs, followed by gay people, followed by straight women. So being gay is "helpful" for women and "bad" for men in terms of salary. Isn't that what it said it showed?
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