Concerning pedantry

Mar 11, 2010 13:21

I've been wondering about terminology.

There was a conversation yesterday where one half of a couple mentioned that they couldn't make a particular date for a class because they were going to see her parents. The guy made a joke about maybe he ought to be going to class. A comment was made about him wanting to get out of seeing the mother-in-law.

The two of them aren't married. They show no signs of ever getting married. Therefore the term mother-in-law is incorrect, because there's no law involved.

But they've been together for over ten years. I'm not sure how long they've been living together, but they share a house and a mortgage. They are essentially married in all senses apart from the legal one. So does the term mother-in-law apply? Given the increased number of couples who are cohabiting but never getting married, is it just natural evolution of language that terms which once applied only to married couples now apply to couples living together?

There's no point to this post. I'm just pondering.
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